|
|
|
Voted # 1 for 4 consecutive years. Richard Farrell redefining non-surgical hair replacement !! |
||
[ Female Forum | Contents | Search | Post | Reply | Next | Previous | Up ]
From: Michelle D.
Date: 13 Jun 2001
Time: 12:24:50
Remote Name: 152.163.207.214
Hi. I just have a thought that has been eating away at me all day and I debated posting, but then I am too curious to hear what you might think.
Five years ago my hair started to fall out in handfuls. Got tested for everything under the sun. All blood work was normal. Had a burning and crawling scalp. Told to use Rogaine. Used Rogaine. Continued the next five years losing excessive amounts of hair all over my head, but not as bad as when it first started. Went from 400 hairs a day to 200 hairs a day. November had a massive shed again. Was put on Spironolactone and BCPs and my loss went from 400 hairs a day down to 20 to 50 give or take more or less, but well within normal. Now this loss although is thinner at the temples and at the part in front was basically diffuse (has since grown back in). If nothing had worked I would have continued to lose hair at an increased rate and not in the pattern typically of AGA. I also have had vertical RIDGES in my nails over the five years and they have NEVER gone away. The doctors don't seem too interested either.
Now with no androgen excess shown in the blood, all my blood work normal, one would think that it is CTE, right? And so then why would an anti-androgen treatment work with no apparent problems in the blood work?
Just wanted to hear if anyone had any idea on that. And it just makes me think that perhaps "some" people with CTE might have a hidden androgen problem.
Just wondering what you all think and wishing everyone SUCCESS in overcoming this!
Michelle D. ~;-)
© Copyright 1997 - 2000 TSE Publishing, Inc. All rights reserved.
No part of this website can be reproduced. Contact
info: HairSite@aol.com 
